Initial Maneuvers Training (IMT) 1 Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• During landing, plan to touchdown in which area of the runway?
• During a rolling takeoff, the PF must set thrust within what percent of the target N1?
• What is the target airspeed on takeoff until reaching MFRA?
• Energy management in IMT 1 involves balancing which two flight parameters?
• What is the purpose of checking clear airspace during an RA?
• What are the PM's actions when an RA is received?
• During an RA maneuver, if an EGPWS warning occurs, what should you do?
• What action is required to correct an EGPWS aural warning when on final approach in VMC?
• Which statement correctly describes the three primary flight controls and their effects on aircraft attitude?
• What company chart can airport-specific EGPWS data be found?
• Why is altitude awareness critical during climbs and descents in IMT 1?
• Which of the following statements best describes the role of the instructor during IMT 1 maneuvers?
• In which scenario is an immediate EGPWS/CFIT Escape Maneuver required without attempting corrections?
• Which primary flight control is used to initiate roll?
• Which speed is described as the targeted speed to be flown until flap retraction altitude?
• When KMFR night visual approaches are accepted, which method is used to join the instrument approach course?
• LAHSO landing distance/weight information can be found in:
• When can the RUNWAY IN SIGHT callout be made?
• During a constant-angle climb, how should altitude and airspeed be managed?
• When using thrust reversers, the PF reduces them to idle by:
• What is the purpose of a standardized checklist in IMT 1 procedures?
• During a go-around, after applying full power, what is the next immediate priority?
• Pressing the TOGA button sets the command bar to what degree of pitch up?
• By 500 ft HAT, which item is part of the stabilization criterion?
• Why should you avoid over-reliance on a single instrument during maneuvers?
• What is the purpose of entering the traffic pattern at a designated goal altitude?
• What is the target pitch attitude for the EGPWS/CFIT Escape Maneuver?
• Which option correctly defines NAV mode during approach?
• What is a key benefit of effective scanning during IMT 1 maneuvers?
• Which speed is described as the minimum speed that may be flown until flap retraction altitude?
• What is a clearing turn and why is it performed prior to maneuvers?
• When does the PF conduct the arrival briefing?
• What is the best practice for crosswind during landing in IMT 1?
• What kind of weather information is most important for IMT 1 maneuver planning?
• What are the PF's actions when an RA is received?
• Which statement correctly describes the RA depiction difference between MFD and PFD?
• Which speed reference is required for takeoff until MFRA in this procedure?
• Which pilot may call for a go-around/missed approach?
• What is the practical effect of using trim during maneuvers?
• When entering a shallow banked turn, what immediate actions help ensure coordination?
• What is the recommended traffic pattern entry procedure used in IMT 1?
• At minimums, if the PM calls MISSED APPROACH, what is the response from the PF?
• What should you do if you encounter unexpected weather during IMT 1 maneuvers?
• What is the target airspeed after reaching MFRA?
• During a go-around, how should flaps be handled if applicable?
• How does trim influence performance during a maneuver?
• What is the minimum speed that may be flown until flap retraction altitude?
• What is the purpose of maintaining ATIS or local traffic pattern altitude when entering the traffic pattern?
• If a high sink rate is required on approach, what is required?
• During the exit phase of a maneuver loop, what should you aim for?
• Which of the following best describes how to achieve zero sideslip in a coordinated turn?
• Which sequence best describes the standard go-around procedure in IMT 1?
• In IMT 1, how should you interpret the term "bank angle" and its effect on turn rate?
• If you lose an engine or power instrument failure occurs, what general action should you take in IMT 1?
• Which statement best describes energy management during climbs and descents?
• By 500 ft HAT, which criterion must be met for stabilized approach?
• What is the primary objective of IMT 1 Initial Maneuvers Training?
• On initial climb with the flaps extended to the takeoff flap setting full maneuvering capability is available at _____.
• Which action best demonstrates good energy management in a turn?
• Which is a correct stress-free method for maintaining hand position while maneuvering?
• During an instrument approach, when should APPR or NAV mode be selected?
• What is the recommended approach to practicing stalls in IMT 1?
• LAHSO distance/weight information is located in which document section?
• Thrust reversers are more effective at high speeds. true or false?
• Patchy contamination definition: what percentage or less?
• In the terminal area, what range should be selected on the MFD?
• Precision approaches are _______________ when available
• What best describes situational awareness in IMT 1?
• When a TA is received, what actions does the PM take?
• How would you describe the concept of energy management in IMT 1?
• Prior to calling 'GEAR UP', the PF must _____.
• Which statement describes the BEFORe LANDING CHECKLIST requirement?
• What is the targeted speed to be flown until flap retraction altitude?
• With thrust reversers deployed, the maximum N1 to be considered idle thrust is:
• From rotation to 1000' AFE, the minimum required airspeed is which value?
• If flaps were extended, what flap position is called for on the escape maneuver?
• How does wind affect takeoffs and landings, and what is a common corrective technique?
• Which safety discipline is emphasized in IMT 1 to prevent errors?
• Which practice helps ensure consistent maneuver performance during IMT 1?
• The aural message that indicates you may return to the assigned altitude is:
• What is the difference between indicated airspeed and true airspeed and which is typically monitored in IMT 1?
• When a TA is received, what is the PF's primary action?
• How should you monitor aircraft attitude during banked turns in IMT 1?
• What is the approximate fuel burn to conduct a missed approach from a point 200 feet above runway and complete a subsequent approach from a 10 NM final?
• Why is cross-checking instruments important during maneuvers in IMT 1?
• Who should be notified as soon as possible after an RA is resolved?
• What would you do if you realize you misread airspeed during a maneuver?
• What is the initial target pitch when initiating a missed approach profile?
• For LAHSO, which describes the distance used to determine allowable touchdown?
• Floating in ground effect during landing can cause:
• In the entry phase of a maneuver loop, how should you transition from straight flight?
• On a max performance takeoff, what action does the PF perform to set thrust?
• Which statement is true about LAHSO minimums?
• TOGA button sets the command bar to what degree of pitch up?
• Which KMFR night visual approach runways are specified for these procedures?
• What factor most influences the choice of bank angle in a turning maneuver during IMT 1?
• Performance values assume the threshold crossing occurs at how many feet?
• Which of the following is included as part of the items to brief on an instrument approach briefing?
• Which primary flight control is used to control yaw?
• What is the immediate recovery action for a stall recognized in IMT 1?
• What elements may be missing in a weather report?
• During KMFR night visual approaches, which statement about remaining on track is true?
• In an instrument approach briefing, which item is used to communicate approach specifics to the crew?
• What is one personal risk management practice you should apply during IMT 1 maneuvers?
• NO turns shall be commenced below 1000' AFE when takeoff weather is less than ______________ unless a Special Departure Procedure prescribes otherwise or the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before reaching 1000' AGL.
• What is the purpose of 'maintaining a stabilized approach' during an IMT 1 approach pattern?
• LAHSO touchdown: which distance is used as the cutoff?
• LAHSO touchdown requirement: Where must the touchdown be accomplished?
• What items must be briefed on an instrument approach briefing?
• In IMT 1, what is energy management and why is it important?
• What is the minimum visibility value that is not authorized for use?
• Which statement best defines a stabilized approach?
• When another aircraft is on a conflicting path during IMT 1 maneuvers, what is the recommended course of action?
• If an instrument failure or other abnormal condition occurs during IMT 1, which action best aligns with the standard response?
• In straight-and-level flight, besides heading, which two parameters must be kept constant?
• KMFR night visual approaches to Runways 14 and 32: what must crews do to accept a visual approach clearance?
• NOTAMs are located on the _____________ and SkyWest Online.
• Why is the highest threat verbalized at the end of the briefing?
• Why is it important to debrief after each maneuver in IMT 1?
• Which value represents the approximate fuel burn for the described missed approach scenario?
• Which is a safe practice during banked turns in IMT 1?
• What is the targeted airspeed from rotation to 1000' AFE?
• What is the targeted speed to be flown after flap retraction altitude?
• How should you respond to unexpected turbulence during a maneuver in IMT 1?
• Which statement about attitude stability is true?
• Which resource should be consulted to determine airspace restrictions before a maneuver in IMT 1?
• How does attitude stability impact maneuver performance?
• When should the landing gear be selected down on a CAT II ILS approach?
• To initiate a missed approach profile the PF states which phrase when conducting an instrument approach?
• Which statement best describes the anti-ice selection for takeoff given the weather scenario provided?
• What action is required to correct an EGPWS aural warning when enroute or on initial approach?
• Which pilot verifies flight spoilers are retracted on the escape maneuver?
• Which primary flight control is used to control pitch?
• The maximum N1 to be considered idle thrust with thrust reversers deployed is:
• What is the recommended sequence for practicing a maneuver loop of entry, maintain, and exit in IMT 1?
• Which instrument primarily indicates pitch attitude in flight instrumentation?
• Rudder control is effective to approximately:
• When is it recommended to accomplish FMS programming?
• While on an instrument approach if the reported visibility drops below minimums a precision approach may continue if
• Landing distance data is based on crossing the beginning of the available landing distance at 50' at ______ with the flaps in the specified landing configuration.
• To initiate a missed approach profile the PF states which phrase when conducting a visual approach?
• During a static takeoff, when are brakes released?
• Which COMPASS switch should be selected for takeoff and climb when EFIS magnetic interference is known?
• What is the relationship between bank angle and turn rate, stall risk, and altitude loss?
• What is one common error pilots make during a go-around in IMT 1?
• What are common indicators of an impending stall?
• Which statement correctly describes the status of flight spoilers by 1000 ft HAT in stabilized approach criteria?
• Which general outcome is achieved by effective scanning during IMT 1 maneuvers?
• If instrument readings are inconsistent with the outside view, what is a prudent action?
• No approach should be initiated unless the prevailing conditions are _________ __________ and a landing is ___________________.
• Rudder control effectiveness is approximately up to:
• Differentiate between a power-on stall and a power-off stall in simple terms.
• When an airport is known to have EFIS magnetic interference on takeoff select _____ on the COMPASS switches for takeoff and climb until the ________ is complete.
• Before starting any maneuver, what is the essential safety check you must perform?
• What is the role of communication in IMT 1 when performing maneuvers around other traffic?
• When performing a clearing turn, what is a key sign you are clear of traffic before entering the maneuver?
• Which symbol on the MFD indicates an RA?
• What best describes the stabilized approach criteria by 1000 ft above the touchdown zone?
• LAHSO minimum ceiling and visibility:
• Thrust reversers are more effective at:
• Performance calculations assume the threshold is crossed at:
• What should you confirm in a standard takeoff briefing?
• How would you recognize instrument misreadings during IMT 1?
• During TCAS RA, what should be done with the autopilot?
• In a max performance takeoff, the key action with thrust levers is to...
• Which speed is described as the targeted speed to be flown after flap retraction altitude?
• What action is required to correct an EGPWS aural warning when on final approach in IMC below 500 feet AGL?
• During the maintain phase of a maneuver loop, what should you ensure?
• Which item is explicitly listed as required for an instrument approach briefing?
• In IMT 1, how would you describe the concept of zero sideslip during a coordinated turn?
• (True/False) A runway that is reporting contaminates as "Patchy" is considered to be contaminated runway.
• Ignoring instrument misreadings during IMT 1 can lead to what outcome?
• The "APPROACH LIGHTS CONTINUE" callout can be made upon reaching which of the following, and only as a response to the which callout?
• How is an RA depicted on the MFD and on the PFD?
• What color is the vertical speed indicator arc on the PFD during an RA?
• APPR mode indicates the aircraft is:
• Which statement best describes when the aircraft must be fully configured for landing?
• If the reported weather on takeoff was 00000KT 3/4SM BR OVC003 08/07 A29.92 what anti-ice systems must be selected on for takeoff?
• When should ATC be notified after the crew has responded to an RA?
• How do you maintain situational awareness while performing a maneuver?